Hi Guys,
Need a bit of a sanity check on a new IP scheme that is being introduced into a network, as a basic overview i have written down all of the IP ranges and on what routers they will sit on, if you fancy having a quick look over it feel free!
Cheers
Here is the basic layout, there are a number of VLANs on each router with the following subnets associated with them. The routing protocol will be ospf.
Layout :
Router2-------Router1---------Router3
Router 1 VLANS:
172.16.1.0/24
172.19.0.0/16
172.16.12.0/22
172.17.0.0/20
172.18.0.0/20
Router 2 VLANS:
172.16.2.0/24
172.16.16.0/22
172.17.16.0/20
172.18.16.0/20
Router 3 VLANS:
172.16.3.0/24
172.16.20.0/22
172.17.32.0/20
172.18.32.0/20
Does this look like it would be ok? The reason for the scheme is that the client was (Unknowingly) using non rfc1918 compliant addresses as internal private addresses and wanted to conform to best practice by only using rfc1918 compliant addresses, so we have had to chop the 172.16-172.32 range up a bit...
Cheers