I am trying to replace a Cisco room switch with an HP1910 switch, and am not having much luck.
My core switch is a Cisco 6509e, and I had a Cisco 2960 in the room before.
On the 6509e, it has a port set up as a "trunk" port, and then fiber running to the room, going in to the SFP port on the 1910 (and physically it shows as being "up").
On the 2960, I would have one of the SFP ports configured as a "trunk" port.
I would configure the switch with whatever VLan that room was supposed to be in, as well as 6 more VLans for our wireless system.
I would have all the other ports except one configured with "switchport access vlan XXX", where XXX was the VLan for that room.
We use Meraki wireless, and so the AP's also sit on a trunk port so they can use multiple VLans, but they need to have a "native" VLan so the AP itself can get an address. So, I use the "Switchport Trunk Native Vlan XXX" command on that "trunk" port to give it the same VLan as the room.
So, I understand that the term "trunk" does not mean the same on the HP as on the Cisco (it's basically etherchannel...) - This is true on the lower end 1910 series as well as the ProCurve, correct?
One of my questions is then: Do I leave all the ports in "access" mode? Does just "tagging" the ports going back to the 6509 and to the AP with all the VLans let them carry all the VLans like a Cisco trunk port?
Also, I assume that all the other access ports should be "untagged" with the room VLan - correct?
For the AP port, do I "tag" it with all the VLans, and then also set the PVID to the room VLan? Is that the same as my Cisco "trunk" port with the native vlan set?
Thanks,
Branden
P.S. This thread has been moved from Switches, Hubs, Modems (Legacy ITRC forum) to Web and Unmanaged. - Hp Forum Moderator